Remembered/ Repeated 100 Questions-1

1. All of the following are adverse effects of opioids except? diarrhea and somnolence

2. Advantage of osteogenesis distraction is? less relapse, large movements

3. An investigation that is not accurate but consistent is: reliability

4. Remineralized enamel is rough and cavitation? Dark hard and opaque

5. Characteristics of a child with autism – repetitive action, sensitive to light and noise

6. S,z,che sounds : Teeth barely touching – True

7. Something about bio-transformation, more polar and less lipid soluble? – True

8. How much of he population has herpes? 80% – (65-90% worldwide; 80-85% USA) More than 3.7 billion people under the age of 50 – or 67% of the population – are infected with herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1), according to WHO’s first global estimates of HSV-1 infection published today in the journal PLOS ONE.

9. Steps of plaque formation: pellicle, biofilm, materia alba, plaque

10. Dose of hydrocortisone taken per year that will indicate have adrenal insufficiency and need supplement dose for surgery – 20 mg 2 weeks for 2 years

11. Rpd clasp breakage due to what? Work hardening

12. Most impacted tooth? Third molar not in options – Maxillary canine

13. Least common survival of lip cancer – white female

14. Aspirin mode of action – inhibit irreversible platelet aggregation thromboxane a2

15. Myasthenia gravis, what is contraindicated? erythromycin and aminoglycosides

16. Treatment for ANUG – Debridement and mouth rinse with h2O2 and if systemic involvement then antibiotics

17. Which type of periodontitis needs antibiotics – LAP

18. Antibiotic used for periodontitis – Tetra and Pen V, also metro

19. Asthma physiology definition – Wheezing on expiration

20. Ranitidine definition – Selective H2 (Histamine) receptor antagonist, these receptors are present in Gastric mucosa lining. Thereby blocking the receptors and prevents release of Gastric acid.

21. Which is prevalent: 1 wall defect, 2 wall defect, 3 wall defect

22. Penumbra definition – Penumbra is lack of sharpness of the film.

23. Which is more hydrophillic pvs or polyether (this question was asked to me twice during day1) – Polyether (but also hydrocolloids)

24. Many questions on study model all leading to a common answer that was cross-sectional study model (they tend to repeat the questions in different formations during day 1).

25. Face division vertically and horizontally – vertical 3 and horizontal 5

26. Disease more common in men (hemophilia)

27. One q on relation between incisal guidace is equal and condylar guidance – When adjusting the condylar guidance for protrusive relationship, the incisal guide pin on the articulator should be raised out of contact with the incisal guided table.

28. Many qs on study model leading to a common answer that was clinical trail (mostly they were on effectively of practices, drugs, etc).

29. Which has poorest prognosis and the answer was PLGA salivary gland tumor. They had confused it with adenoid cystic and mucoepi – False – Pleomorphous Low Grade Adenocarcinoma (PLGA) has good prognosis after surgical excision (Mosby) – I think answer is Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

 

30. A lot of questions on anti cancer drugs so study it carefully… really sorry that i don’t remember them as I was poor in that topic – Dihydrofolate reductase by methotrexate, amoxicillin inhibits renal tubular secretion of methotrexate.

31. What comes before plaque or pellicle or biofilm

32. Deepest part of occlusal rest for rpd – marginal ridge

33. Simple questions in oral patho about cleidocranial as to what it affects (clavicles)

34. Many many many questions in endo with positive or negative findings in relation to percussion, palpation, night pain and then diagnosis of the combinations were asked.

35. Simple questions in relation to pulpectomy and pulpotomy: pulpotomy – vital / pulpectomy – non vital

36. Questions on modellling technique in pt mngmt (pt made to observe his cousins or friends behaviour to improve his own)

37. Disto buccal extension of mandi cd lateral limit influenced by masseter or ramus

38. Key feature of the custom tray during final impression is its under extension? – The custom tray for a final mandibular or maxillary complete denture impression should have a spacer w/ stops to ensure the tray will be seated in proper relationship to the arch, and to ensure adequate room for the impression material. Other features: trimmed 2 mm short of the mucosal reflection and frenae. The primary indicator of the accuracy of border molding is the stability and lack is displacement of the tray in the mouth.

39. Class ii and iii drug:
S II: amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, pentobarbital, oxycodone, methadone, codeine, and Percocet (acetaminophen + oxycodone). (Must have a written prescription and cannot be refilled)
S III: Tylenol 3, Vicodin – must have a written prescription, refills do not need new prescription and may be called into the pharmacy.

 

40. Absolute contra of papoose straps emergency situation or a co-operative patient

41. Hemorrhage common complication of maxi extractions and to my surprise the same question with mandi extractions was asked but without the option of dry socket, infection was the only sane option so i went for it.

42. A lot of questions on 3/4th and 7/8 crowns but they were basic ones and i could derive the answer by using the facts given in dental decks.

 

44. What sound is affected if incisors are placed too far superiorly and ant: f and v

45. Best (conservative) method to close a 1 mm non patho diastema in a young adult is: composite

46. If a patient doesn’t have 3rd molars how many furcations will he have in mxi arch (to make the calculation simple there are three furcations for maxi teeth mesial distal and Buccal rest is simple calculation) – 16 – maxillary molars have 3 furcations (4 molars * 3 furcations = 12), 1st pm is bifurcated, that means it has 2 furcations (2*2=4). We have 16 furcations. 2nd premolars, central incisors, lateral incisors and canines do not have
furcations.

47. Most common site for graft iliac – true

48. Most common site for mandi fracture – condyle

49. Complication with distraction osteogenesis – nerve damage

50. Implant analogue used to replicate the position of implant on the implant platform (confusing options were if its used for impressions? Nope that’s impression copings – An implant analogue is an implant replica and is inserted into the set impression material before the cast is poured. Impression coping is attached directly to the implant fixture head. Impression copings facilitate transfer of the intraoral location of
the implant to the same position on the laboratory cast. Impression copings can be either screwed into the implant body or screwed or snapped onto an implant abutment.

51. Simple question on implants like distance from adjacent tooth and the implant 1.5mm

52. Distance from the ant loop and the implant which is 5mm

53. During IANB bleeding is caused due to puncture into which artery – inferior alveolar artery

54. Two questions on ideal resto material for a class v lesion but this patient was young and had an active caries condition (I was shocked to see this question repeat twice with minor formation changes) – According to DD: glass ionomer is indicated in high caries risk and CLASS V where esthetics is a concern, so I would go with GIC.

55. Two questions on the incision for int bevel in which direction is it directed – the internal bevel incision (reverse bevel) starts at a distance from the gingival margin and is aimed at the bone crest.

56. Which of the following cements should not be used with all ceramic restorations due to reports of ceramic fractures? 1. Gic 2. Resin luting cement 3. Zinc phosphatecement 4. Resin modified GIC

57. Same went for gingivectomy (same q on where is the incision directed) – above
mucogingival junction .

58. Why do we remove bone during modified widman flap – to achieve a good tissue adaptation to the neck of the teeth.

59. Which type of comp are used for two cases posterior comp and for repairing small occlusal defects (micro, mid, macro, etc ) – Microhybrids – they have particular size small enough to polish to a shine similar to microfills but large enough to be highly filled, thus achieving higher strength. Particle size small enough to polish and high strength. Retain good properties of hybrids (strength), with improved handling.Polishability almost equal to microfills. Universal use—anterior and posterior restorations.
– Microfills: high polishability but low fracture toughness (esthetic areas, anterior restorations), lower elastic modulus—better in class V situations.
– Hybrids: not high polish but improved physical properties compared to microfills., Universal use—anterior and posterior restorations.
– Macro filled composites: First-generation” restorative composites. Poor physical and mechanical properties. Poor esthetics.

60. Why don’t we do posterior comp – because of its low wear resistance we don’t do posterior composite in cases of bruxism.

61. Dentist does a comp but shade is too light what is the most conservative mngmt which acc to my opnion was apply tint and not redo the entire restoration – tint

62. Simple q like chisel cuts – used mainly to cut enamel

63. A lot of questions on mngmt of hypertension like wha drug for mild cases, what drug for sever cases or htn emergency:
– Mild hypertension: CHLOROTHIAZIDE (thiazides), diuretics, beta-blockers such as PROPRANOLOL, alpha1 blockers such as ATENOLOL, centrally acting adrenergic drugs such as METHYLDOPA or CLONIDINE, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors such as CAPTOPRIL, LISINOPRIL. – Severe hypertension: GUANETHIDINE and ganglionic blocking agents.

64. What not to give in COPD emergency mnmgt which acc to my opinion was only oxygen (other options had a potent bronchodilator along whith o2 which is the way to go) – True, inhalation of 100% oxygen is contraindicated in a patient w/ COPD

65. Montelukast and zakirlucast what type of drugs in relation to their effect on leukotriene – Block leukotriene (cys-LT1) receptors

66. Simple calculations in LA (based upon normal values and how much to give i the give case, how much epi is present in x carpule ).

67. Effect of age on biotransformation of the drug (this was a bouncer for me)- W/ age -> slower rate of biotransformation and reduced rates of elimination – Children will inactivate and eliminate medications faster than adults. In the elderly there may be a diminished dose requirement for many medications because of age-related decreases in liver mass, hepatic enzyme activity, and hepatic blood flow.

68. If one increases the h2o to powder ratio what does it do with relation to hardness and expansion (this is for gypsum) – decreased setting expansion and decreased strength (increased setting time)

69. What property of a cement is not affected by water to powder ratio options were solubility, consistency, thickness, etc

70. What would one prefer distal rest or mesial rest…. always go for mesial rest – mesial to edentulous area.

71. Sulcular depth req for lingual bar – depth = 7-8 mm minimum At least 4 mm below the gingival margins

72. Most rigid type of maxi major connector – anterior-posterior palatal strap

73. Question on migrane with how the TRIPTANS work – Triptans are agonists at serotonin 5- HT(1b/1d) receptors – serotonin 5-HT agonist antimigraine drugs (Mosby)

74. Pt with symptoms of headache fatigue fever and vision loss… the only sane option was temporal arteritis – True: weight loss, polymyalgia, rheumatic, fever, decreased vision, jaw claudication. (Mosby)

75. Supernumerary teeth with intestinal polps and osteomas (Gardners syndrome) – True

76. Unstimulated flow from submandibular salivary gland – 0.1ml/minute

77. Ant flabby tissue under maxi cd and mandi ant natural teeth combination syndrome or kellys syndrome – True

78. Pka with rate of onset, lipid solubility with bioavailability of a drug (two questions on that)

79. Sign of kidney failure which will levels will shoot the earliest blood: uric acid, creatinine, creatinine phosphokinase, urea, etc – creatinine

80. Q on when to treat patient with respect to dialysis: one day after his dialysis.

81. Commonly used nsaid in kids is: ibuprofen

82. Acetaminophen acts on temp centre in hypothalamus thus causing its anti pyretic effect, options were supposed to confuse us to choose prostaglandins. Hypothalamus -> temperature regulation center.

83. Then the same old same old question was asked as to if a patient has basal cel carcinoma and you are about to break the news to him and he says that just tell me straight do i have cancer or not, first response should be should i cal someone to be with you, the other option which made sense was that prognosis of basal cell is good but this shoudnt be the anser in my opnio as the patient is in a grumpy mood and you need to calm him down first before going on to discuss the details with him).

84. Advantage of led light cure with respect to haolge – energy efficient, lightweight, lifetime bulb.

85. What is the first stage of HIV infection, i went for asymptomatic phase as that’s the first stage followed by acute infection, aids related complex which as hairy tongue, leukoplakia, and other stuff and lastly full blown AIDS.

86. Dementia early sign short term loss or long term loss… i went with short term as one of my family member suffered from it so i remembered it crystal clear.

87. Autism patient will have problem with listening and speaking there was a q on that too – Delay in several skill areas as talking, listening, plating with peers, and attention span.

88. Denture considerations in patients with diabetes like use porcelain teeth, arch shape should be narrow, imp with non pressure tech rest of the points are given in decks… the question was on arch shape

89. One opg with a radio lucency extending from post mand to ant, the sane option was OKC and the confusing options were ameloblastoma, but since ameloblastoma spreads labiolingually rather than ant post – OKC – antero-posterior direction without bony expansion and often associated with impacted tooth.

90. One more pano with radiolucency seen with unerrupted tooth and the only sane option was dentigerous cyst – It contains a crown of an unerupted tooth (DD)

91. Cause of ORN which had two conf options like bisphos and 42 gy , i went with bisphos as 42 gy is susceptible and more than 60 gy means he has high chances but bisphos is like the principal cause that’s y it was called BRONJ but now they have changed it to MRONJ which is medically induced orn – FALSE: osteoradionecrosis (ORN) is related to head and neck radiation and BRONJ is bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw – related to intravenous and oral bisphosphonates therapy. If the case is about ORN the answer is not bisphosphonates. If the question is about BRONJ or MRONJ the answer should be bisphosphonates.

92. Base value for good patient relation is: communication should be good

93. Same follow up on this question was active listening is done by active eye contact.

94. Never judge a patient …this was the q and a never what …. (and the only sane option was) judge

95. Plz do all the interferences and wht cusps occlude with what during maximum intcusptn… there is a nice video on youtube called fence diagram video which i had done during part one that helped me a lot.

96. Very little qs on ortho mostly with cephalometrics angles like sna snb and stuff bc they were kept in store for day two

97. Dist between casette/grid and the collimator for a lateral ceph 15cm, 60 cm, 5 inch, 6 inch (as per i remember these were the options, but i just randomly gussed this one ).

98. One pano of a kid and dental age was asked

99. Supernumerary teeth occurs due to problem in what stage of tooth development ans was: initiation

100. Basic questions on space maintainers like loss of uni first primary molar what does
one give – Band and loop

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